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1
APPLICANT PREPARATION GUIDE FOR THE
POST ENTRY-LEVEL LAW ENFORCEMENT TEST BATTERY
PREPARING FOR THE EXAM
The POST Entry-Level Law Enforcement Test Battery (PELLETB) measures skills that are
associated with successful performance as a California peace officer. Because the PELLETB is an
aptitude test, the skills measured are acquired gradually over a long period of time (usually
years). There is no quick or easy way to improve these skills in preparation for the exam. The
only way to predictably improve scores on an aptitude test is through extensive learning and
practice (e.g., coursework, training).
Because the PELLETB is primarily a language aptitude test, one must already possess solid
language skills to perform well on the test. There are a few exercises that can be helpful in
maximizing performance if solid language skills are already in place. This test preparation guide
has been developed to provide helpful information about test format and content. This guide
explains exactly what is tested in the exam and provides sample questions that can be used for
practice. This guide also provides research-based information on the best strategies for
answering test questions.
WHAT THE EXAM MEASURES
The first two components of the PELLETB focus on language ability: one evaluates writing ability
and the other tests reading ability. The writing component of the test measures clarity,
vocabulary, and spelling. The reading component measures reading comprehension. The third
component of the exam focuses on reasoning ability.
Writing Ability
Each of the three writing sub-tests contains 18 items. In the clarity sub-test, sentences are
presented and the test-taker is asked to identify which sentence is most clearly and correctly
written. Only common writing errors (e.g., unclear references, misplaced modifiers, sentence
fragments, and run-on sentences) are included in the clarity portion of the exam.
The spelling sub-test uses a standard multiple-choice format. A sentence is given with one word
omitted. A blank indicates the location of the omitted word. Four alternative spellings of the
same word are given. The test-taker is asked to identify the word that is correctly spelled for
the given context.
The vocabulary sub-test also uses a standard multiple-choice format. One word in a sentence is
underlined and the test-taker is instructed to select the alternative that is the most accurate
synonym or definition. The words included in the spelling and vocabulary tests are common
words that may be encountered in law enforcement work.
2
Reading Ability
Reading ability is measured through the use of two sub-tests. The first is a 28-item reading
comprehension sub-test. This sub-test presents passages which vary in length from a single
paragraph to one page. After reading the passage, test-takers answer multiple-choice questions
about the information contained in the passage. All passages cover common concepts and
contain the information necessary to answer the questions.
The second measure of reading ability is the 40-item CLOZE sub-test. Test-takers are presented
with a passage of text. In each passage, the first and last sentences of the passage are
complete. Between the first and last sentences, every seventh word is systematically deleted
from the text. No word is deleted that cannot be deduced from context. In place of each
deleted word is a dashed line. Each dash represents one letter in the deleted word. The test-
taker must use contextual clues to determine what words would logically complete the
passage. The word must come from the test-taker's vocabulary as no alternative words or lists
of words are presented in the test. A word is considered correct if it is syntactically correct and
semantically appropriate (i.e., words selected by the test-taker must be the right part of speech
and must make sense in the passage). In some instances, there is more than one correct
response; in others, only one word can correctly fill the blank. In instances where more than
one word is correct, the test-taker receives credit as long as he/she selects a word that fits
within the context.
Reasoning Ability
The reasoning ability sub-test contains 9 items. The reasoning sub-test uses a standard
multiple-choice format. Information such as groups or ordered series of facts, numbers, letters,
or words are presented. The test taker analyzes information and uses patterns, commonalities,
and relationships to answer questions about the information presented.
3
HOW THE EXAM IS SCORED AND INTERPRETED
When POST electronically scans test answers, statistical calculations are performed to convert
raw scores (the number of items answered correctly) into a “T-score.” A T-score is a
standardized score that places an individual’s performance on the test into a distribution (bell-
shaped curve) with a midpoint (average) of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. If the individual’s
score falls around 50, his/her performance is considered “average” when compared to other
applicants who have taken the test. Scores of 40 or below are considered “below average.”
Scores of 60 or above are considered “above average.” Research shows that the likelihood of
successful academy completion increases for every point scored above 42.
All responses provided by the test taker are a part of the ongoing analyses of the test battery.
The graph above provides a visual representation of T scores. The bell is comprised of many
individual test scores. The bell is widest in the middle because most scores fall in and around the
middle. This is why scores near the mid point of 50 are considered “average.”
4
PRACTICE TEST
The following shortened version of the test is provided to prepare potential test-takers for the
types of items they will encounter on the actual test. Familiarity with the structure and content
of the test should reduce anxiety associated with taking the exam. The covers of the test, as
well as all instructions and directions, have been presented exactly as they appear on actual
tests. Following each practice sub-test, the correct responses are provided along with an
explanation of why the other choices are incorrect. For item formats where test-taking
strategies can improve one’s final score, the strategies are presented. It should be noted that
some versions of the PELLETB may contain research items that are not scored. Since it is not
possible to determine which items are research items, it is important to complete all items as if
they will contribute toward one’s final score.
5
NAME:
___________________________________________________________________
(Last) (First) (MI)
SOCIAL SECURITY NUMBER ____ ____ ____ -- ____ ____ -- ____ ____ ____ ____
TEST LOCATION:
___________________________________________________________
DATE:
_____________________________________________________________________
(Month) (Day) (Year)
ENTRY-LEVEL LAW ENFORCEMENT TEST BATTERY
TEST BOOK B
Form Version: 2011
CALIFORNIA COMMISSION ON
PEACE OFFICER STANDARDS AND TRAINING
860 STILLWATER ROAD, SUITE 100
WEST SACRAMENTO, CALIFORNIA 95605
ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO
CONTROL NUMBER ______________________
6
WRITING ABILITY TEST
The Writing Test is comprised of a 45-item multiple-choice examination. This test measures
three aspects of good writing: clarity, vocabulary, and spelling. Remember to mark all responses
to test questions on the answer sheet. Make no marks in the test booklet.
Suggestions for Taking the Test
• Be sure you mark the space on your answer sheet that has the same number as the
question in the test booklet.
• Keep your answer sheet on a hard surface while you are marking an answer.
• Firmly press down the pencil point until you completely darken the circle on the answer
sheet. Do not use any other means of marking your answer sheet.
• If you wish to change your answer, be sure to erase your first answer completely to
ensure proper scoring.
• It is to your advantage to answer all questions. If it takes an unreasonable amount of
time to answer a question, it is better to skip it and go back to it after the other
questions have been answered.
• Read and consider all choices to each question before deciding which one is correct.
7
CLARITY
Instructions:
In the following pairs of sentences, identify the sentence which is most clearly written. If
sentence "a" is more clear than sentence "b," mark "a" on your answer sheet. If sentence "b" is
more clear than sentence "a," mark "b" on your answer sheet.
1. a. The officer was hoping to get a new partner, one that had a great deal of experience.
b. The officer was hoping to get a new partner. One that had a great deal of experience.
2. a. Bullet fragments were gathered by officers in envelopes.
b. Bullet fragments were gathered in envelopes by officers.
3. a. The suspect disliked the officer as did the judge.
b. The suspect disliked the officer as much as the judge.
4. a. The officer had probable cause to arrest the suspect when he arrived at the scene.
b. When the officer arrived at the scene, he had probable cause to arrest the suspect.
5. a. Jail is not a pleasant place to be, but they do get their basic necessities met.
b. Jail is not a pleasant place to be, but prisoners do get their basic necessities met.
Correct Answers:
1, a; 2, b; 3, a; 4, b; 5, b
Explanation of Incorrect Alternatives:
In item #1, alternative "b" is incorrect because "One that had a great deal of experience" is a
sentence fragment.
In item #2, alternative "a" is incorrect because it contains a misplaced modifier. The way this
sentence is written, it sounds like the officers collecting the bullet fragments were
themselves in the envelope.
In item #3, alternative "b" is incorrect because it is confusing and ambiguous. Does the suspect
dislike both the officer and the judge, or does the judge dislike the officer as much as
does the suspect? One can't tell the way the sentence is written.
In item #4, alternative "a" is incorrect because it has an unreferenced pronoun. The way the
pronoun "he" is used in this sentence makes it unclear if "he" is referring to the
officer or the suspect.
8
In item #5, alternative "a" is incorrect because it is unclear who is referred to by the pronoun
"they." In sentence "b", the noun "prisoners" makes the sentence clear.
Things to study:
This is the only sub-test where studying can markedly improve your test score. The clarity test
measures your ability to identify clear, as opposed to unclear, writing. The writing faults that
are included in this test relate to modification, reference and sentence boundaries. No obscure
writing faults are included. To maximize your test score, you should review the rules regarding:
1. Modification
Example 1:
a. "In rural areas, more deer are killed by automobiles than by hunters."
b. "In rural areas, automobiles kill more deer than hunters."
Explanation:
Choice "a" is clearly written. The reader knows that more deer are killed by automobiles
than are killed by hunters. Choice "b" is an example of improper modification. The way
the sentence is written automobiles are killing both deer and hunters.
Example 2:
a. Beginning to run before stretching is frequently the cause of shin splints.
b. Beginning to run before stretching frequently is the cause of shin splints.
Explanation:
Choice "a" is correctly written. The reader knows that beginning to run before stretching
can frequently cause shin splints. Choice "b" is written incorrectly. The way this sentence
is worded, "frequently" incorrectly modifies stretching thus causing confusion or error.
2. Vague or Indefinite Reference
Example 1:
a. The next time Mary was in town, she agreed to have lunch with Sue.
b. Mary agreed to have lunch with Sue the next time she was in town.
9
Explanation:
Choice "a" is clearly written. The reader knows who is having lunch, with whom, and
when. Choice "b" suffers from an ambiguous reference. The sentence is ambiguous
because the way it is worded does not make clear whether Mary will have lunch with Sue
the next time Mary is in town or the next time Sue is in town.
Example 2:
a. The child wanted everything he saw advertised in commercials, even though he
didn't know exactly what the toys were.
b. The child wanted everything he saw advertised in the commercials, even though he
didn't know exactly what they were.
Explanation:
Choice "a" is clearly written. The reader knows that the items advertised in the
commercials were toys. Choice "b" is incorrect because the "they" at the end of the
sentence is unreferenced. The reader does not know what items were in the
commercials.
3. Run-on Sentences
Example:
a. The necessary revisions have been made by the author and the manuscript is now
ready to be printed. The publicist can begin developing the advertising campaign.
b. The necessary revisions have been made by the author and the manuscript is now
ready to be printed the publicist can begin developing the advertising campaign.
Explanation:
Choice "a" is correctly written. Choice "b" is a run-on because it consists of two complete
sentences that are not separated by a semi-colon, a period, or a comma and a
coordinating conjunction.
4. Sentence Fragments
Example:
a. The position requires that the incumbent type, file and prepare travel expense
claims in addition to acting as the receptionist for the organization.
b. The position requires that the incumbent type, file and prepare travel expense
claims. In addition to acting as the receptionist for the organization.
10
Explanation:
Choice "a" is correctly written. Sentence "b" is incorrect because the phrase "in addition to
acting as the receptionist for the organization" is not a complete sentence.
11
VOCABULARY
Instructions
In each of the following sentences, choose the word or phrase that most nearly has the same
meaning as the underlined word. Mark on your answer sheet the letter that identifies the
correct choice.
1. The witness corroborated the suspect's story.
a. verified
b. contradicted
c. added to
d. questioned
2. It was not a very pragmatic plan.
a. plausible
b. serious
c. practical
d. sensible
3. The police sequestered the suspect.
a. caught
b. isolated
c. arrested
d. released
4. In order to conceal her guilt, Linda told a blatant lie.
a. harmless
b. subtle
c. careless
d. obvious
5. He was ignorant of the proper procedures.
a. unaware
b. conscious
c. uncertain
d. cognizant
Correct Answers:
1, a; 2, c; 3, b; 4, d; 5, a
12
Explanation of Incorrect Alternatives:
In item #1:
verify means to corroborate, confirm, or attest to
contradict means to express the opposite
added to means augmented
question means to cast doubt on
In item #2
plausible means apparently valid or likely
serious means earnest or sincere
practical means pragmatic
sensible means reasonable or wise
In item #3
caught means to seize or trap
isolate means to sequester
arrest means to seize or bring into custody
release means to let go
In item #4
harmless means not harmful, inoffensive
subtle means not obvious
careless means done without care or concern
obvious means blatant
In item #5
unaware means ignorant
conscious means aware
uncertain means having questions regarding
cognizant means aware
Things to study:
Vocabulary is not a skill that can be improved quickly. The best way to improve vocabulary is to
immerse oneself in language for prolonged periods of time through activities such as reading
and writing. Using and interacting with language is the only real way to achieve mastery.
Learning words in isolation is very difficult. Those with strong vocabulary skills may benefit from
understanding the Latin and Greek roots, prefixes, and suffixes on which many English words
are based. Below are some examples of words that derive their meaning from their roots,
prefixes, and suffixes.
13
Roots Meaning Example
bas = low (basement, debase)
bio = life (biology, biopsy)
cent = hundred (century, centipede)
dec = ten (decade, decimal)
ego = self (egotistical, egomaniac)
equ = equal (equity, equality)
fort = strong (fortitude, fortify)
graph = write (autograph, graphic)
loc = place (location, dislocate)
mort = death (mortal, mortician)
ped = child (pediatrician, pedagogy)
phob = fear (claustrophobia, homophobia)
poten = powerful (impotent, potentate)
soph = wisdom (philosophy, sophisticated)
term = end (terminate, terminal)
urb = city (suburban, urban)
Prefixes Meaning Example
anti = against (antidote, antislavery)
in, il, im, ir = not (indiscrete, illegal, impossible, irresponsible)
inter = among, between (intercede, interject)
non = not (nonconformist, nonentity)
re = back (recur, rebound)
pre = before (precede, preempt)
sub = under (subvert, submarine)
trans = across (transmit, transcend)
un = not (un-American, unaware)
Suffixes Meaning Example
ance, ence = state of (indulgence, abundance)
ate = one who (candidate, advocate)
il, ile = capable of being (evil, servile)
ness = quality of (willingness, shrewdness)
ory = a place for (factory, depository)
some = characteristic of (loathsome, fearsome)
14
Test strategies:
1. Put the word in context.
If you do not know the word itself, attempt to figure out the meaning based on the meaning
of the sentence in which it is used.
2. Be aware of subtle differences in meaning.
There may be occasions when two words seem to be correct. Before making a choice, try to
identify the differences between the words. This will help in selecting the word that is most
correct for the context.
15
SPELLING
Instructions
In the following sentences, choose the correct spelling of the missing word. Mark on your
answer sheet the letter that identifies the correct choice.
1. His ______________ of the situation was incorrect.
a. analisys
b. annalysis
c. analysis
d. anallysys
2. It was not _____________ who committed the crime.
a. apparent
b. apperant
c. aparent
d. aperant
3. She was a ____________ worker.
a. conscienteous
b. consceintious
c. consceinteous
d. conscientious
4. She did not actually _____________ the stolen goods.
a. receive
b. recieve
c. receve
d. recive
5. There was only one witness to the boy's ______________.
a. abducton
b. abducsion
c. abduction
d. abduckion
Correct Answers:
1, c; 2, a; 3, d; 4, a; 5, c
16
Things to study:
It is difficult to prepare for the spelling portion of the test. No specific word list was used to
identify the words that comprise the spelling test and, therefore, no specific words to study.
The words that comprise the test are words that could likely find themselves in police reports
or in the other writing done by officers. There are rules that govern spelling, but they are many
and complex.
The complete set of rules that govern spelling is quite extensive, and there are numerous
exceptions to the rules. The following includes just a few of the more important rules that
govern spelling.
1. Prefixes
A prefix is a syllable or syllables added to the beginning of a word to change its meaning. A
prefix does not change the spelling of the original word—it is simply added to the beginning
of that word.
Examples: dis approve, dis continue, mis understand, over extend, un happy.
2. Suffixes
A suffix is a syllable or syllables added to the end of a word to change its meaning. A suffix
can be a letter, a syllable, or a group of syllables added at the end of a word or word base to
change meaning."
There are a number of rules that govern spelling when adding a suffix.
A. When adding the suffix ness or ly, don't change the spelling of the base word. However,
when the root word ends in y, the y is usually changed to i before the ly or ness.
Examples: sure, surely; cool, coolness; happy, happily; friendly, friendliness.
B. When a one syllable word ends in a single consonant preceded by a single vowel, double
the consonant before adding ing, ed, er, est.
Examples: wrap, wrapping; tap, tapped; big, biggest.
C. When a word with more than one syllable ends in a single consonant proceeded by a
single vowel, and when the accent is on the last syllable, double the consonant before
adding ing, ed.
Examples: occur, occurring; submit, submitted.
D. When a word ends in a consonant followed by a silent e, drop the e before adding ing.
Examples: hide, hiding; save, saving.
17
E. When a word ends in y preceded by a consonant, keep the y before adding ing. When
adding either es or ed, change the y to i.
Examples: cry, crying; cry cries; cry, cried.
3. Plural forms of nouns
A. To form the plural form of most nouns, add s.
Examples: truck, trucks; cat, cats.
B. To form the plural form of nouns ending in s, x, z, ch, or sh, add es
Examples: box, boxes; patch, patches; fox, foxes.
C. To form the plural form of nouns ending in a consonant plus y, change the y to i
and add es.
Examples: county, counties; cherry, cherries.
D. To form the plural form of nouns ending in a vowel plus y, add s.
Examples: turkey, turkeys; boy, boys.
E. To form the plural form of nouns ending in a consonant plus o, add es.
Examples: tomato, tomatoes; veto, vetoes.
F. To form the plural form of nouns ending in a vowel plus o, add s.
Examples: rodeo, rodeos; stereo, stereos.
4. "I" and "E" Rule
The general rule is that i precede e (e.g., believe etc.) except after c when e precedes i
(e.g., receive).
18
REASONING
Instructions
Officers often face situations where they need to determine how different pieces of
information relate to one another. In this section, you will be presented with information such
as a group or ordered series of facts, numbers, letters, or words. Your task is to study the
various pieces of information and try to understand how they relate to one another. Mark the
letter which identifies your choice on your answer sheet.
Ordering Information
1. Suspect A was in the house longer than Suspect B. Suspect C was the house for less time
than Suspect B. Who was in the house the longest?
a. Suspect A
b. Suspect B
c. Suspect C
d. Not enough information.
Correct Answer: a (Suspect A spent more time in the house than B, and Suspect B spent
more time in the house than C; therefore, A was in the house the longest).
Grouping Information
2. Three of the following words are similar, while one is different. Select the one that is
different.
a. Helicopter
b. Bicycle
c. Calculator
d. Car
Correct Answer: c (A helicopter, a bicycle, and a car are modes of transportation while a
calculator is not – so it is different).
Recognizing Patterns in Information
3. What is the next number in the following sequence?
9, 8, 7, 6, 5, _____
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
Correct Answer: b (the number 4 completes the series, counting downward from 9).
19
THE MULTIPLE-CHOICE READING COMPREHENSION TEST
Instructions
Officers must read and understand a wide range of materials. This test is designed to measure
your ability to read and understand various types of written material. Read each paragraph or
passage and choose the statement which best answers the question. All questions pertain only
to the material in the passage which precedes them. Choose your answer solely on the basis of
the material contained in the passage. Mark the letter which identifies your choice in the space
on your answer sheet. Do not spend too much time on any one item.
1. The case of Gideon v. Wainwright, decided by the Supreme Court in 1962, granted court-
appointed counsel to people charged with felonies who could not afford to pay for their
own attorneys. In a more recent case, the Supreme Court declared that the right extends to
persons who are charged with any crime for which prison is a potential penalty. According
to these court decisions, a defendant may waive his or her right to be represented by
counsel at trial, but the state must at least provide the defendant with the opportunity to
have free counsel.
Based on the above passage, which of the following statements is most correct regarding
defendants who cannot afford an attorney?
a. Anyone who must appear in court has the right to a free attorney.
b. Anyone whose charges may result in prison must have an attorney representing
him or her at trial.
c. Anyone charged with a felony must have an attorney present for his or her trial.
d. Anyone charged with an offense that could lead to prison must have the option
of a free attorney.
2. During the 1970s rural America registered a population gain of almost 14 percent, while
metropolitan growth was just under 10 percent. The surprising spurt in rural growth had
nothing to do, however, with prolific reproduction. On the contrary, rural areas were mired
in aging townsfolk. This fact, combined with the trend toward smaller families, actually
resulted in a 10 percent decline in the existing rural population between 1965 and 1970.
Newcomers more than made up for that loss. The latest census tells us that one sixth of the
U.S. population now lives in rural areas and 40 percent of all new housing in the 1970s was
built on rural land. The rural areas are now growing faster than the metropolitan areas for
the first time since the early 1800s.
20
Based on the preceding passage, which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Rural areas were mired in aging townsfolk because the young and farmers were
immigrating to the cities.
b. There has been more than a 10 percent increase of newcomers to rural areas.
c. The overall gain in the American population was almost 14 percent.
d. The trend toward small families contributed to the decrease in the urban
population growth rate.
3. Entrapment is defined as officers or agents of the government provoking a person to commit
a crime that he did not originally contemplate in order to prosecute him. The goal of law
enforcement is not to encourage nor to create an offense, but to prevent people from
committing crimes and/or arrest people when they do commit offenses.
Based on the preceding passage, which of the following statements describes an instance of
entrapment?
a. Property that has been marked by police so that they can trace it at a later time.
b. A victim, learning that a person intends to rob him, does nothing to stop the
crime, but instead allows the robber to carry through with the crime so that
police will catch him in the act.
c. A door to a warehouse containing valuable merchandise is purposely left open
by police.
d. An undercover officer approaches a known drug dealer and tries, unsuccessfully,
to purchase drugs.
4. Community policing has gained increased acceptance during the past 10 years. The
community policing model places service to the public and prevention of crime as the
primary role of police in society and emphasize problem solving, with active citizen
involvement in defining those matters that are important to the community, rather than
crime fighting and arrest statistics. Officers at the patrol level are required to spend less time
in their cars communicating with other officers and more time on the street communicating
with citizens. Proponents of this style of policing insist that addressing the causes of crime
makes police officers more effective and at the same time enhances the quality of life in the
neighborhood. Community policing concepts, if successfully implemented, offer the prospect
of effective crime prevention and substantially improved community relations. Although
community-based policing is not a panacea for the problems of crime in society, it does offer
valuable opportunity to both reduce crime and enhance the police image.
21
According to the preceding passage, which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Community policing is expected to increase the number of arrests made by
patrol officers.
b. Implementing community policing is expected to decrease the amount of crime.
c. Community policing is not designed to lessen crime.
d. The community policing model defers decision-making to citizens and
community members.
5. GENERAL ORDER 62 (Radio Codes)
The purpose of this general order is to describe the coding system that identifies the various
departmental and non-departmental units. Below you will find three components of police
radio codes (A, B, and C). When a dispatcher sends officers out on a call, these 3 code
components are used.
Each call number shall be comprised of three components:
1. the first digit identifies shift
2. the alpha digit describes the operational assignment
3. the last two digits identifies unit or area
Call numbers shall be assigned as follows:
A. Shift designation
1 – Day
2 – Swing
3 – Graveyard
B. Operational assignments
A – Patrol Division, Platoon 1
B – Patrol Division, Platoon 2
C – Patrol Division, Special Activities
D – Patrol Division, Gang Unit
E – Traffic Division, Motorcycle Unit 1
F – Traffic Division, Motorcycle Unit 2
G – Traffic Division, Administration
H – Investigation Division, Fraud
I – Investigation Division, Drugs
J – Administration Division
22
C. Unit or Area
1-12 – Metropolitan area
13-20 – Airport
21-40 – Industrial parks
41-45 – Residential areas
Using the above coding system, the call number 2-B-12 would identify
a. swing shift, platoon 2, metropolitan area
b. graveyard, platoon 1, airport
c. swing shift, administration, residential
d. day, traffic unit 1, airport
Correct Answers:
1, d; 2, b; 3, c; 4, b; 5, a
Explanation of Incorrect Alternatives:
Item #1:
Alternative "a" is incorrect because it states that "anyone who must appear in court has the
right to a free attorney" while the text states that "persons who are charged
with any crime for which prison is a potential penalty" have a right to a free
attorney.
Alternative "b" is incorrect because it states that "anyone…must have an attorney
representing him or her at trial." The passage, however, states that "a
defendant may waive his or her right to be represented."
Alternative "c" is incorrect because it states that "anyone charged with a felony must be
represented for his or her trial" while the passage only addresses individuals
charged with a crime "for which prison is a potential penalty."
Item #2:
Alternative "a" is incorrect because the passage says nothing about "the young and
farmers….immigrating to the cities."
Alternative "c" is incorrect because it states that an "overall gain in the American
population" but the passage speaks about rural and metropolitan growth,
not overall growth.
23
Alternative "d" is incorrect because the passage states that the trend toward smaller families
resulted in a "decline in the existing rural population" not a trend toward
smaller families affecting urban growth.
Item #3:
Alternative "a" does not constitute entrapment because there is no government provocation
to steal the marked items.
Alternative "b" is not entrapment because the activity described is undertaken by a "victim"
not by the government.
Alternative "d" is not entrapment because the officer is not provoking an individual to
commit a crime that they were not already contemplating committing.
Item #4:
Alternative "a" is incorrect because community policing is not focused primarily on
enhancing arrest statistics but rather "places service to the public and
prevention of crime as the primary role of police in society."
Alternative "c" is incorrect because community policing is intended to lessen crime. Unlike
traditional policing, however, this goal is to be achieved through crime
prevention, not crime fighting.
Alternative "d" is incorrect because decision-making is not deferred to the citizens and the
community. Community policing does, however, stress "active citizen
involvement in defining those matters that are important to the community."
Item #5:
Alternatives "b", "c", and "d" are immediately recognized as incorrect because the last
element of the code (12) refers to the metropolitan area, and only one of the
choices, "a," meets this condition.
24
Test strategies:
Strategy 1: Read the question and the alternative responses before reading the passage. When
reading the passage, focus attention on information indicated in the question and alternatives.
Strategy 2: Avoid using opinions or personal knowledge to answer the question. Remember
that responses are scored based solely on information that is in the passage.
Strategy 3: Read the question very carefully. Correct responses are difficult for those who
misread the question.
25
NAME:
___________________________________________________________________
(Last) (First) (MI)
SOCIAL SECURITY NUMBER ____ ____ ____ -- ____ ____ -- ____ ____ ____ ____
TEST LOCATION:
___________________________________________________________
DATE:
_____________________________________________________________________
(Month) (Day) (Year)
ENTRY-LEVEL LAW ENFORCEMENT TEST BATTERY
TEST BOOK B
Form Version: 2011
CALIFORNIA COMMISSION ON
PEACE OFFICER STANDARDS AND TRAINING
860 STILLWATER ROAD, SUITE 100
WEST SACRAMENTO, CALIFORNIA 95605
ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
CONTROL NUMBER ______________________
26
CLOZE READING TEST
This is a test of how well you can read. The test is completed by supplying missing words in
sentences and then coding those words on your answer sheet. Every place you see a dashed
blank line, you have to supply the correct word. Notice that there are different numbers of
dashes in each blank space. The dashes tell you how many letters make up the word that has
been deleted. For a word to be scored as being correct it must make sense in the passage and it
must have the same number of letters as there are dashes. All words that meet these two
conditions will be scored as being correct. For example, a sentence in the test might read…
"The driver was injured when his 1) _ _ _ crashed into the tree." You would complete the
sentence by printing "CAR" in the blank space provided: "The driver was injured when his
1) C A R crashed into the tree." The word B U S could have been used, as it both makes sense in
the blank space, and has the proper number of letters. The words truck, auto and vehicle are
incorrect, because, even though they make sense in the blank, they have the wrong number of
letters. There were three dashes in the blank space. Therefore, only words with three letters
can be used. Also, only one word has been deleted in each blank space, so make sure that you
put only one word in each blank space with a dashed line.
Once you have completed the passage, you then code your answers onto Page 2, side 2 of the
answer sheet. On Page 2, you will find the alphabet printed many times. Each numbered
column represents one item. To code a word on the answer sheet, write the FIRST LETTER of
the word that you wrote in the blank, in the box directly under the appropriate item number.
Then, blacken the circle in the column of letters that is the same as the letter you wrote in the
box. ONLY THE RESPONSES CODED ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET WILL BE SCORED, SO MAKE
SURE YOU CODE YOUR ANSWERS CORRECTLY. As you are coding your answer sheet, check to
ensure that:
• the item number on the answer sheet, where you are coding your responses,
corresponds with the item number in the passage.
• you have written the correct letter in the box.
• you have blackened the correct circle below the box.
The following paragraph is an example of a CLOZE test.
The juvenile justice system encounters many types of people. Here is one example. Mary was 15
when 1) _ _ _ was first arrested. Mary was a popular girl. 2) _ _ the time of her first arrest, 3) _ _ _
was doing well in school. According to 4) _ _ _ teacher, she was a hard working 5) _ _ _ _ _ _ _ and
made excellent grades. Mary also had 6) _ good attitude toward school. Mary lived with her
parents 7) _ _ a middle class neighborhood.
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Po Written Practice Test (California)

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Completed 18 July 2020

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